onenerdykidYeah there are plenty of great female inventors. Just do a Google search and educate yourself. Or you can just check here: http://www.women-inventors.com/
But my two personal favorites are Marie Curie and Margaret Hamilton. As you may recall, Curie is the only person in history to have won the Nobel Prize in two different branches of science- a man has yet to do that. Hamilton is responsible for writing much of the computer code by hand for the Apollo space program. NASA credits her with being one of the most indispensable persons of the whole program, meaning without her they wouldn't have gotten very far.
In general, if you want to know why there aren't more women in the sciences perhaps look at the culture they are in. When the New Testament says "I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet. - 1 Timothy 2:12 " are you really surprised that many women aren't encouraged to go down that road?
The New Testament is a moral failure written by men who couldn't comprehend even the most basic principles of ethics or moral philosophy.
Also, I didn't see you come to the defense of slavery...
So many people like to quote 1 Timothy 2:12 right there out of context. The thing is many verses that people use as an attack on Christianity are taken out of like this. So the reason that Paul would say something like that to Timothy is because of the times they were living in. He would say "I do not permit a women to teach or to exercise authority over a man..." for the same reason that an American would say for example "I do not permit a German to be the president of the United States..." if this was during the Second World War. There is history to the Bible and you have to remember that Paul is talking to and addressing people in a certain time zone sometimes. If you want you can get a study Bible, preferably a version such as the NASB or NKJV, a Bible dictionary, and a Bible concordance, to translate each word you see in a verse back into the Greek, Hebrew, or Latin and then retranslate it back into English to see what words that it literally means. Also learning about the time that the Apostle Paul was living through, or any time period of the Bible you are reading to understand the culture can help really improve ones understanding of what is going on here. Now this is not to say that the Bible currently isn't relevant, but it is to say that studying the Bible one can find out and realize why a writer from the Bible would say such things. It may not be because of "The Law" but rather because in 40 AD no one would have listened to a woman's opinion and her preaching, so it would be extremely ineffective
for the early church to put a woman in such a position. Plus another few easy little things to say " Love the Lord your God with all your heart with all your soul with all your mind and with all your strength, The second is you shall love your neighbor as yourself. There is no other commandment greater than these." (Mark 12:30-31)
Also a bit of studying on the 1 Timothy verse to show you what can go into it...
It goes back to the King James Version. In that version, the verb authenteo is translated "usurp." Hence, the KJV reads here, "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence." That rendering for the verb was somewhat novel. The KJV translators mistranslated this very because they knew Latin better than they knew Greek. Now they mistranslated this in a non-critical way because in a way the word authenteo can mean multiple things just like the word "bat" just not with as dramatic of a difference. In the sixteenth century, Erasmus of Rotterdam--the man who was the first to publish a Greek New Testament--rendered authenteo this way. He produced five Greek New Testaments, and all of them were Greek-Latin diglots. That is, Greek was on one page and his Latin translation of the same was on the facing page. By the fourth century AD, authenteo had come to mean 'usurp.' But it didn't have this force earlier. Consequently, Erasmus translated the verb as usurpare (from which, obviously, English gets 'usurp'). His translation was based on Greek usage that was 300+ years after the time of the New Testament. Remarkably, Erasmus produced his Greek New Testament as a way to correct Jerome's Latin Vulgate. Jerome was the fourth century scholar who brought uniformity to the Latin versions of the Bible by gathering them up, along with several Greek copies, and trying to discern what was the original wording. In other words, Jerome was much closer to the time of the original than Erasmus was. And in Jerome's Vulgate, he translated authenteo as dominare. This Latin verb means, essentially, "to exercise authority." Only secondarily does it have a negative force. It was probably the best Latin verb to use for authenteo.
If you're still tracking with me, let's go back to Erasmus. He based his translation on his reading of Greek writers who lived during or after the time of Jerome. And because of this, he didn't grasp the actual meaning of authenteo in 1 Tim 2:12. And since authenteo is a RARE word in Greek literature, the KJV translators simply consulted the Latin in their Greek-Latin diglot to discern the meaning of the verb. And what did they find? Usurpare. Hence, an "illegitimate" translation made its way into the translation of the Bible. But today, the vast majority of English translations understand the term to be neutral, meaning we don't really have a word for authenteo in the English therefore we use usurp. But the meaning of the verse and the history of it is quite different than what it may look like to the average reader.
If you have any other questions about anything in the Bible or Christianity in general throw em at me with a Message or here on the thread I'm ready and here to answer them to the best of my ability hahah!