This is a minor flaw that I noticed.
According to 'The 21st Century Websters Family Encyclopedia' (Revised Edition), of the beliefs held by Communists is that as long as workers do not own the means of production, they do not own the product of their labour, and are hence alienated from a part of their humanity. A view also held by classic-liberals. But, how do communists justify having the workers own the means of production, if they are still working for the factory and not themselves? The individual working for the benifit of his singular person, is different than the individual working for the benifit of a Co-op, of whihc he is a member. In fact, the ownership of the means of production by the workers, as desired by the communists, can be said to be the EXACT SAME as in North America capitalist system, where workers can buy stock in the company in which they work, there-by owing the means of production*.
I do not pose this dilema only to Communists, but rather to anybody and everybody who understands what I'm trying to get at.
*this idea was not evident to me as I began to write the above and is hence no part of the motivation to write the above.
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''mills, whats a copmuter? is it some special contraption that makes police quiet?''
-alpentalik
Don't be WACK
Vote TAK